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[Caml-list] Calling a function with a self-defined type as argument
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Date: | 2002-08-22 (12:55) |
From: | Oliver Bandel <oliver@f...> |
Subject: | Re: [Caml-list] Calling a function with a self-defined type as argument |
On 22 Aug 2002, Dimitri Ara wrote: > Oliver Bandel <oliver@first.in-berlin.de> a écrit : > > > (* > > let _ = x Line "h0oifdaji oi" ;; > > This last one does not work: => "This function is applied to too many arguments" > > > > let _ = x Line( "reuruhjf" ) ;; > > This last one does not work: => "This function is applied to too many arguments" > > > > But it works in this way: > > let _ = x (Line "reuruhjf") ;; > > > > WHY? (why *only* that?) > > > > At least the second example (with parantheses around the > > Line's arguments) should work...?! > > *) > > Because : > > (1) application is left associative. > > Thus `f x y' means `(f x) y' and > `x Line ""' means `(x Line) ""'. > > (2) parentheses don't delimit the arguments of a function or a > constructor but only fix the precedence of an expression. > > Thus f x (y) means f x y and > `x Line ("")' means `x Line ""'. OK. But why has the Line()-argument not a higher pruiority than the function-call? The Line()-argument is only complete, if it get's it's args. And the type-declaration says in detail, how to handle the Line(). But it seems to me that it is handled like an "ordinary" function call. I thought, that the compiler would put this together: *one* argument to the function, and the argument means using the type `Line "text"'. Ciao, Oliver ------------------- To unsubscribe, mail caml-list-request@inria.fr Archives: http://caml.inria.fr Bug reports: http://caml.inria.fr/bin/caml-bugs FAQ: http://caml.inria.fr/FAQ/ Beginner's list: http://groups.yahoo.com/group/ocaml_beginners