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[Caml-list] Stupid question
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| Date: | -- (:) |
| From: | skaller <skaller@t...> |
| Subject: | Re: [Caml-list] Stupid question |
On Thu, 2004-01-15 at 11:03, Brian Hurt wrote: > I was poking around in the produced assembly code of some ocaml code of > mine, and I noticed something. The construct: > if (x < m) <> (y < m) then > ... > > when the compiler knows that x, y, and m are all ints, it calls an > external C routine to compare the two booleans. But the construct: > > if (x < m) != (y < m) then > ... > > does not. Now, this isn't a big deal- I just replaced <> with != and no > problem. But I was kind of interested in why the compiler didn't catch > and optimize this. Is there some sort of subtle semantic difference I'm > too dense to see? Well, <> is a polymorphic value comparison. Whereas != is a physical inequality comparison. -- John Max Skaller, mailto:skaller@tpg.com.au snail:25/85c Wigram Rd, Glebe, NSW 2037, Australia. voice:61-2-9660-0850. Checkout Felix: http://felix.sf.net ------------------- To unsubscribe, mail caml-list-request@inria.fr Archives: http://caml.inria.fr Bug reports: http://caml.inria.fr/bin/caml-bugs FAQ: http://caml.inria.fr/FAQ/ Beginner's list: http://groups.yahoo.com/group/ocaml_beginners