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[Caml-list] Stupid question
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Date: | 2004-01-14 (23:01) |
From: | Brian Hurt <bhurt@s...> |
Subject: | [Caml-list] Stupid question |
I was poking around in the produced assembly code of some ocaml code of mine, and I noticed something. The construct: if (x < m) <> (y < m) then ... when the compiler knows that x, y, and m are all ints, it calls an external C routine to compare the two booleans. But the construct: if (x < m) != (y < m) then ... does not. Now, this isn't a big deal- I just replaced <> with != and no problem. But I was kind of interested in why the compiler didn't catch and optimize this. Is there some sort of subtle semantic difference I'm too dense to see? -- "Usenet is like a herd of performing elephants with diarrhea -- massive, difficult to redirect, awe-inspiring, entertaining, and a source of mind-boggling amounts of excrement when you least expect it." - Gene Spafford Brian ------------------- To unsubscribe, mail caml-list-request@inria.fr Archives: http://caml.inria.fr Bug reports: http://caml.inria.fr/bin/caml-bugs FAQ: http://caml.inria.fr/FAQ/ Beginner's list: http://groups.yahoo.com/group/ocaml_beginners